So just for semantics purposes…
If INFN has around 141.42M shares on the public market, and we know someone bought 8.84% of the available shares (125k shares divided by 141,420,000 == 8.84; I didn’t even include the 50k options that were converted)… shouldn’t the price have gone UP today? Or was this an event that would have gone in as of close-of-market (and thus won’t reflect until tomorrow’s share price)??
CEO/CFO buying that many shares tells you one of maybe two things:
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The price is attractive, and they believe it’s temporarily low, so they want to profit.
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The price is falling fast, and they’re looking for ways to keep it from falling more, faster or further, so they buy to offset the sell volume.
Hard to know which is may be, but I’d love to know!