Ah, now I understand.
As to the first, no difference overall. By definition, the “all-in per-person cost (employer cost, employee premium, and out-of-pocket)” is just the person’s health care needs for the relevant time period. The insurance you have (or whether you have insurance) just affects who pays for that health care. If you have a broad policy (80-90% AV), most is pay under the policy and very little out of pocket; if you have a narrow policy (60% AV) or are uninsured (0% AV), it means more of it or all of it is out-of-pocket. By definition, the total is the same for everyone regardless of what policy they have. But it will vary intensely from person to person, or group to group, because different people have different health care needs: that total cost will be very high for a 64-year-old (on average) and very low for a 20-year-old (on average).
When reading this the first time, I didn’t quite catch what you were talking about. There’s vast difference in the relative proportions of “employee pays” vs. “employer pays” vs. “out-of-pocket” among the different groups (and within each group), and I thought that’s what you were pointing to. But if it is the total (which on re-reading it seems like you’re asking), then that depends entirely on the person, not which group they belong to.
If what you’re asking about is the nature of the insurance on offer, the insurance available in the private marketplace is now pretty similar to that of employer group plans:
How ACA Marketplace costs compare to employer-sponsored health insurance - Peterson-KFF Health System Tracker
…with similar premiums and coverage rates. Most large-group employers offer choices between 60% AV plans and 80% AV plans, roughly corresponding to Bronze and Gold in the ACA: so both groups will have a range of options to choose from, more or less (small-group employers tend to only have the HMO/PPO ~80% AV choice). Which is what I was talking about upthread - for the most part, most folks leaving workplace insurance can replicate their coverage by purchasing individual insurance policies. The question isn’t whether those policies are available, but whether someone else is going to pay for them or not. Obviously, outside of employer-based insurance those policies will not be paid for by employers, but will be paid for entirely by the individual.
There are differences in the populations of each of those groups, since the individual insurance market skews much older than workforce insurance - it’s heavily utilized by the “retire early” crowd who are not quite Medicare eligible.
As for this…
Why do you think that’s true? Often if there are different options, personal utility increases rather than decreases - because you can match your option to your needs, and change your option if your needs change. There’s massive variety in how healthcare is paid for in different groups - but do those differences create a disparity in personal utility? Or is it just that a person being paid $7K higher compensation has more utility than someone who is not? If I am looking at two groups that are paid exactly the same compensation (nominal salary plus the value of health care benefits), and one group gets part of their salary in employer-based health-care and the other does not, why would that difference create a disparity in personal utility?