A hedge fund has “amassed” 1% of CVS shares. ($700m). The company has agreed to add 4 new directors to its Board, for a total of 16.
Why does owning 1% of a company entitle someone to 25% of the company’s Board of Directors? I have seen this over and over, where a very small portion of ownership suddenly leads to a major overhaul of a corporation’s management.
If someone can explain this to me I’d appreciate it. Thanks.
Yep - I think goofy’s question (somewhat rhetorical or more of a thought experiment) went to the percent of a board one gets to have based on share ownership.
It doesn’t. In the case of CVS it appears the Glenview hedge fund was advocating for major changes, which probably resonated with major stockholders given the stock’s 34% decline this year.
I suspect this was an act of self-preservation by the Board. The CEO of CVS was recently dumped and it wouldn’t be a stretch to think that the Board of Directors would be next. A last ditch alternative is to add your enemies to the team.
It is like the Roman Empire finally admitting the Gauls as citizens or why despite recent events, increasing immigration will be the trend in the Western economies. Inclusivity is all about survival.
But, the Prole shareholders can only vote on the people that were put forward by the Board. That is how Tandy got rid of Jesse Upchurch, when he criticized the performance of CEO John Roach: he was simply not nominated for reelection to the Board.
Let’s get real the existing board at CVS is worthless. The company is in terrible shape. The way some of you are talking they have some merit. You really think that?
It is not like that board does not know how worthless they are.