Per the Second Amendment, even slaves had the right to buy guns.
Didnât SCOTUS decide slaves werenât people?
Steve
Then they can not be tried for alleged crimes using guns. AND they shoot backâŚ
We have âcafeteria lawâ in Shiny-land now. The law says whatever suits your agenda at the moment. One faction complains about âunelected judges legislating from the benchâ, ie bad, when decisions donât go their way. But when the judges decide in that factionâs favor, then anyone who criticizes judges needs to be arrested and tossed in prison.
I could post links quoting the same person taking both sides, only a few months apart, but the articles would name names.
Steve
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In other words, nothing has changedâŚ
No, they didnât.
Prior to the Civil War and the Reconstruction Amendments, the Bill of Rights only applied to the federal government. Not State governments. Any State that wanted to prohibit slaves from owning guns was free to do so (and they all did).
After the adoption of the 14th Amendment, the various Amendments of the Bill of Rights were held to apply to the State governments through the application of the Due Process Clause - a legal theory called âincorporation.â The timing varied by amendment, but the details arenât important because the 14th wasnât adopted until 1868. At no time did the Second Amendment apply to States while slavery existed.
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I solved that one a long time ago. Buy used at 3-6 years old and pay less than half the price of new.
âPeter
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