Curious then that the amendment specifically provides a remedy to overcome the “insurrection” charge, and it is given specifically to “2/3 of each House”. If it’s necessary to specify the remedy thus, why isn’t the automatic assumption that the cause is brought by someone else.
(*IOW: Who would disallow a candidate for “insurrection” if 2/3 of the Houses can bring it back? The original 1/3 of the Houses who said “No, you can’t be a candidate? This makes no sense.)